(NIV1984) 1 Kings 22:15 – “When he arrived, the king asked him, ‘Micaiah, shall we go to war against Ramoth Gilead, or shall I refrain?’
“‘Attack and be victorious,’ he answered, ‘for the LORD will give it into the king’s hand.'”
The correct response to this is, “WHAT?!” Why is Micaiah saying exactly what everyone else has said?! Especially after that statement to the messenger? And everything is built up to him saying something contradictory? Yet his response is the same as the others? Why?!
Is this really what the LORD is giving him to say? This will cause further conjecture in later verses because we’re going to get a lot more from Micaiah than this.
Also interesting that in Ahab’s question – it’s “shall we go to way” and “shall I refrain”. One is plural, the other is singular. Just an interesting note.
Also, once again, which king’s hand?